41 year old female without any known prior medical history presents with presyncope symptoms & palpitations during this arrhythmia. How can we differentiate between VT & SVT in this ECG?
(Click to zoom on image)
Answer: This ECG was orthodromic AVRT with RBBB, LPFB Abberrancy.
A 40 year old female with no medical history is less likely to present with Scar related VT due to ischaemic heart disease.
However, VT remains a possible diagnosis due to several non ischaemic cardiomyopathies or due to idiopathic VT. I’ve listed a short list of some which need to be considered, however, for the sake of brevity & not labouring the point, this list is severely truncated & by no means exhaustive and presentations can deviate significantly from those listed here:
1.Idiopathic VT
2.ARVC (AVC):
3. Dilated Cardiomyopathy:
4. Cardiac Sarcoid:
This ECG morphology does not fit with several of these presentations, although that does not exclude them as a diagnosis.
80% of Wide complex tachycardias are VT purportedly.
This ECG has an overall look that is consistent with a RBBB & LPFB.
A corner stone of VT vs SVT analysis is a very strong understanding of the features of bundle branch blocks & fascicular blocks, so that you can recognize when these features are present (and therefore the wide complex tachycardia is likely SVT with aberrancy) and not present (making VT a more likely diagnosis).
My Two cents:
Thanks for tuning in :)
Cheers
Mitch & the CPiP team
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